وقوع الطلاق بالكتابة والهاتف
إذا كتب الزوج لزوجته رسالة بالهاتف المحمول : أنت طالق ، ثم قال لم
أقصد الطلاق ، هل يقع بذلك الطلاق ؟.
الجواب
الحمد لله
أولاً :
" اتفق الفقهاء على وقوع الطلاق بالكتابة , لأن الكتابة حروف يفهم منها الطلاق , فأشبهت النطق ; ولأن الكتابة تقوم مقام قول الكاتب , بدليل أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم كان مأمورًا بتبليغ الرسالة , فبلغ بالقول مرة , وبالكتابة أخرى . والكتابة التي يقع بها الطلاق إنما هي الكتابة المستبينة , كالكتابة على الصحيفة والحائط والأرض , على وجه يمكن فهمه وقراءته . وأما الكتابة غير المستبينة كالكتابة على الهواء والماء وشيء لا يمكن فهمه وقراءته , فلا يقع بها الطلاق , لأن هذه الكتابة بمنزلة الهمس بلسانه بما لا يسمع " انتهى . "الموسوعة الفقهية" (12/217) .
ثانياً :
قال ابن قدامة رحمه الله : " ولا يقع الطلاق بغير لفظ الطلاق ، إلا في موضعين : أحدهما ، من لا يقدر على الكلام ، كالأخرس إذا طلق بالإشارة ، طلقت زوجته ...
الموضع الثاني : إذا كتب الطلاق ، فإن نواه طلقت زوجته ، وبهذا قال الشعبي ، والنخعي والزهري والحكم وأبو حنيفة ومالك وهو المنصوص عن الشافعي ".
وإن كتب بلا نية الطلاق ، لم يقع عند الجمهور : " لأن الكتابة محتملة ، فإنه يقصد بها تجربة القلم ، وتجويد الخط ، وغم الأهل ، من غير نية" . انتهى من "المغني" (7/373) .
وقال في "مطالب أولي النهى" (5/346) : " فلو قال كاتب الطلاق : لم أرد إلا تجويد خطي ، أو لم أرد إلا غم أهلي , قُبل ؛ لأنه أعلم بنيته ، وقد نوى محتملاً غير الطلاق . . . وإذا أراد غم أهله بتوهم الطلاق دون حقيقته ، لا يكون ناويًا للطلاق " انتهى .
وسئل الشيخ ابن باز رحمه الله : رجل كان جالسًا مع أخته وزوجته فطلب من أخته أن تجيء بالقلم فكتب على ورقة : طلاق طلاق بغير إضافة إلى أحد فغضبت أخته وأخذت القلم ثم كتبت ثلاث مرات طلاق طلاق طلاق ثم ألقى الورقة إلى امرأته وقال لها : انظري هل صحيح ما كتبت ؟ وهو لم يرد كتابة هذه الألفاظ لامرأته .
فأجاب : " هذا الطلاق غير واقع على المرأة المذكورة إذا كان لم يقصد به طلاقها , وإنما مجرد الكتابة أو أراد شيئًا آخر غير الطلاق , لقول النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم : ( إنما الأعمال بالنيات . . . ) الحديث .
وهذا قول جمع كثير من أهل العلم وحكاه بعضهم قول الجمهور , لأن الكتابة في معنى الكناية , والكناية لا يقع بها الطلاق إلا مع النية في أصح قولي العلماء ، إلا أن يقترن بالكتابة ما يدل على قصد إيقاع الطلاق فيقع بها الطلاق .
والحادثة المذكورة ليس فيها ما يدل على قصد إيقاع الطلاق والأصل بقاء النكاح والعمل بالنية " انتهى .
وقال الشيخ محمد بن إبراهيم رحمه الله :
والجواب : الحمد لله , إذا كان الأمر كما ذكرت في أنه لم يقصد من كتابته صريح طلاق زوجته إلا تهديدها وإرهابها لترتدع عن معاملتها السيئة له ، وأنه لم يقصد الطلاق ولم ينوه إطلاقاً فلا يقع الطلاق المذكور ، وبالله التوفيق " انتهى .
"فتاوى محمد بن إبراهيم" (11/سؤال رقم 3051) .
وسئل الشيخ محمد بن إبراهيم أيضاً عن رجل كتب طلاق امرأته وأراد بذلك غم أهله وتهديدها .
فأجاب :
"فتاوى محمد بن إبراهيم" (11/السؤال رقم 3050) .
الإسلام سؤال وجواب
هنا
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Divorce in writing
If a husband writes a text message to his wife on the cell phone, saying “You are divorced” then he says that he did not mean it as a divorce, does that count as a divorce?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The fuqaha’ are unanimously agreed that divorce may take place in writing, because divorce may be understood from writing letters, so it is akin to speaking, and because writing may take the place of words uttered by the writer. The evidence for that is the fact that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was commanded to convey the message, so he conveyed it sometimes by speaking and sometimes in writing. So the writing by means of which divorce takes place is clear writing, such as writing on a paper, a wall or on the ground, in a manner that can be understood and read. As for writing that is not clear, such as writing in the air or in water or anything that cannot be understood and read, this does not count as a divorce, because this writing is like muttering that cannot be heard. End quote.
Al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah, 12/217
Secondly:
If the husband writes a message to his wife saying “You are divorced,” whether that is via a mobile phone or on a piece of paper or via e-mail, then it depends on his intention at the time of writing. If he was determined to divorce her, then it counts as a divorce, but if he wrote that without the intention of divorce, rather he wanted to make his wife upset or some other reason, then it does not count as a divorce.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: Divorce does not take place if the word of divorce (talaaq) is not uttered, except in two cases, one of which is when a person is unable to speak, such as a man who is mute; if he issues a divorce by means of gestures, then his wife is divorced.
The second case is if the divorce is written; if he intended it as such then his wife is divorced. This is the view of al-Sha’bi, al-Nakha’i, al-Zuhri, al-Hakam, Abu Haneefah and Maalik, and it is the view that is narrated from al-Shaafa’i.
If a man writes it without intending divorce, then it does not count as such according to the majority of scholars, because writing is open to interpretation, and he may have intended just to test the pen, or improve his handwriting, or upset his wife, without intending it (as a divorce). End quote from al-Mughni, 7/373
It says in Mataalib Ooli al-Nuha (5/346): If the one who wrote the words of divorce says: I only intended to improve my handwriting thereby, or I only intended to upset my wife, that is to be accepted, because he knows best what his intention was, and he intended something that may be interpreted as other than divorce… and if he intended to upset his wife by making her think that he was divorcing her when in fact that was not the case, then he was not intending to divorce her. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: a man was sitting with his sister and his wife and he asked his sister to bring him a pen, then he wrote on a paper: “Talaaq, talaaq (divorce, divorce)” without referring to anybody. His sister got angry and took the pen, then she wrote three times, Talaaq, talaaq, talaaq (divorce, divorce, divorce).” Then she threw the paper to his wife and said to her: “Look, is what I have written correct?” But he did not intend to write these words for his wife.
He replied: This divorce does not count as such for the wife mentioned, if he did not intend thereby to divorce her. Rather he was simply writing or he intended something other than divorce, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Actions are but by intentions…”
This view was held by very many of the scholars and some of them narrated that it was the view of the majority, because writing is like a metaphor, and a metaphor does not count as a divorce unless it is intended as such, according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, unless the writing is accompanied by evidence that the intention was divorce, in which case it counts as such.
In the incident mentioned, there is nothing to indicate that the intention was divorce, so the marriage remains as it is, and actions are judged by intentions. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Ibraaheem (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
We have received your question, from which we understand that a man wrote one divorce to his wife So and so the daughter of So and so, and that he added his signature and name to the writing, but he did not intend thereby to divorce his wife at all. Rather he wrote the paper to scare his wife and threaten her so that she would stop treating her husband badly. You are asking whether this man’s divorce of his wife counts as such or not.
The answer: Praise be to Allaah. If the matter is as described, and by clearly writing words of divorce to his wife he did not intend anything other than to threaten her and scare her so that she would stop treating him badly, and he did not intend divorce at all, then this does not count as a divorce. And Allaah is the Source of strength. End quote.
Fataawa Muhammad ibn Ibraaheem, 11/ question no. 3051
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Ibraaheem was also asked about a man who wrote words of divorce to his wife, intending thereby to upset his wife and threaten her. He replied:
It seems to us that this divorce does not count as such, rather he intended thereby to upset his wife and threaten her. The scholars have stated that if he intended by writing the words of divorce to improve his handwriting or upset his family, then his intention is to be accepted and the divorce does not count as such. It says in Sharh Zaad al-Mustaqni’ (vol. 3 p. 150): If a man clearly writes the word of divorce to his wife in such a way that it appears clear, it counts as a divorce even if he did not intend it as such, because it is clearly stated. If he says, “I intended only to improve my handwriting or to upset my family,” that is to be accepted. End quote.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. End quote.
Fataawa Muhammad ibn Ibraaheem, 11/question no. 3050.
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الطلاق عبر الهاتف
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الطلاق عبر الهاتف
السؤال : ما قول فضيلتکم إذا طلق الرجل زوجته عبر الهاتف النقال أو رسالة الجوال ، ھل هی طالق أم لا؟
الجواب
الحمد لله
إذا قال الرجل لزوجته عبر الهاتف : أنت طالق ، أو طلقتك ، وقعت طلقة واحدة ، كما لو قال ذلك بحضورها ، أو قاله في غيابها بدون استعمال الهاتف .
وكذلك إذا كتب رسالة على الهاتف الجوال يخاطب فيها زوجته أنه طلقها ، أو يخاطب غيرها بأنه طلق زوجته ، وكان قاصداً للطلاق ، فإنه يقع بذلك الطلاق أيضاً .
ولمزيد الفائدة ينظر جواب السؤال رقم : (72291) .
والله أعلم .
الإسلام سؤال وجواب
هنا
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Divorce by phone
What do you say if a man divorces his wife via mobile phone or text message? Is she divorced or not?
Praise be to Allaah.
If the man says to his wife over the phone, “You are divorced” or “I divorce you,” then it counts as one divorce (talaaq), just as if he said that in her presence, or he said it in her absence without using the phone.
Similarly, if he writes a message on the mobile phone addressed to his wife in which he says that he has divorced her, or tells someone else that he has divorced his wife, and he intended to divorce her, then that also counts as a divorce.
For more information please see the answer to question no. 72291.
And Allah knows best.
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